
(a) Magnetic flux is defined by,
| φm = BAcos(θ) . | (1) |
Evaluating the flux for the given data,
| φm | = BAcos(θ) |
| = (0.45 T)π(0.1 m)2cos(25°) | |
| = 1.28 × 10-3 Tm2 |
From Faraday's Law, the induced emf is
| ε = -dφm/dt . | (2) |
Applying (2) to (1) yields
| ε = -(dB/dt)Acos(θ) - B(dA/dt)cos(θ) + BAsin(θ)(dθ/dt) . | (3) |
Now the area of a circular loop is A =
πr2,
so equation (3) becomes
| ε = -(dB/dt)Acos(θ) - 2rB(dr/dt)cos(θ) + BAsin(θ)(dθ/dt). | (4) |
(b) If only B is changing, dB/dt = -0.05 T/s and dr/dt = dθ/dt = 0. We get
| ε | = -(dB/dt)Acos(θ) |
| = -(-0.050 T/s)π(0.1 m)2cos(25°) | |
| = +1.42 × 10-3 Volts |
(c) If only r is changing, dr/dt = +0.10 m/s and dB/dt = dθ/dt = 0. We get
| ε | = -2rB(dr/dt)cos(θ) |
| = -2(0.1 m)(0.045 T)(0.010 m/s)cos(25°) | |
| = -2.56 × 10-3 Volts |
(d) If only is changing, dθ/dt = +2.5 rad/s and dB/dt = dr/dt = 0. We get
| ε | = +BAsin(θ)(dθ/dt) |
| = +(0.045 T)π(0.1 m)2sin(25°)(2.5 rad/s) | |
| = +1.49 × 10-3 Volts |
(e) If all variables are changing at once, the result is the sum of the answers from (b) to (d).
| ε | = -(dB/dt)Acos(θ) - 2rB(dr/dt)cos(θ) + BAsin(θ)(dθ/dt) |
| = +1.42 × 10-3 Volts - 2.56 × 10-3 Volts + 1.49 × 10-3 Volts | |
| = +3.5 × 10-4 Volts |
(f) We need to establish a coordinate system. In the diagram below, we show the coil as if we were looking down at it. The magnetic field is initially out of the page.

Lenz's Law state the current will be such to oppose the change.
If B out through the loop is increasing, the current will be
such to create flux into the page. This requires a clockwise
current. If B out through the loop is decreasing, the counterclockwise
current will be such to create flux out of the page.
In (b) B out of the page is decreasing, so the current is CCW. In (c), the area is increasing so the amount of flux though the loop is increasing. Hence the current is CW. In (d) the flux decreases as θ goes to 90°. Thus the current is CCW. In (e), the sign of is the same as in (b) and (d) so the current is in the same direction, CCW.

At points (1), (3), (5), and (7) the flux is constant (zero)
and no emf or current is produced.
At (2) the flux out of the page through the loop is increasing.
The emf and current are such to counter the growth by generating
flux into the page. The current will be CW by the right hand
rule.
At (4) the flux out of the page through the loop is decreasing.
The emf and current are such to counter the decrease by generating
flux out of the page. The current will be CCW by the right hand
rule.
At (6) the flux into the page through the loop is decreasing.
The emf and current are such to counter the decrease by generating
flux into the page. The current will be CW by the right hand
rule.
We know that the emf produced in a conductor moving through a magnetic field at right angles is
| ε | = lvB^ |
| = (47 m)(960 km/h × 1000 m/km × 1 h /3600 s) (60 × 10-6 T) | |
| = 0.75 Volts |

(a)Magnetic flux is defined by,
| φm = BAcos(θ) . | (1) |
Here A is the area of the triangle that is in the
magnetic field B. The triangle is perpendicular to the field
so θ = 0 and cos(0) = 1.
We will use a little geometry to find that area. Examining the diagram below, we see that A
= ½bx. However we need to express b in terms of x. We have
a right triangle so tan(30°) = b/2x and hence
b = 2xtan(30°)
= 2x/√3. Thus A =
x2/√3.

Therefore
| φm = Bx2/√3 . | (3) |
(b) The emf produced is given by Faraday's Law
| ε = -dφm/dt . | (3) |
Differentiating (2) yields
| ε = -(2/√3)Bx dx/dt . | (4) |
Now v = dx/dt and x = vt for constant speed, so (4) becomes
| ε = -(2/√3)Bv2t . | (5) |
Evaluating for the given data yields
(b) The flux down through the loop is increasing.
Lenz's Law says that the emf and current produced will counteract
this by generating flux up through the loop. By the right hand
rule, the emf and current are CCW.
(c) Using Ohm's Law, the current in the loop is

Only B^ has an effect
because B|| is in the same direction
as the motion. Faraday's Law states that an emf is produced only
when field lines are crossed.
The magnitude of the produced emf is ε
= vLB^, for
a rod moving through a magnetic field. If we examine the diagram
above, the area swept out by the rod is increasing. Therefore
the flux through this area is also increasing out of the page.
According to Lenz's Law, the emf produced must be CW to create
a flux into the page. Since there is a conducting path there
will be a CW current as well. Using Ohm's Law, the current will
have a magnitude I = ε/R =
vLB^/R .
We also know that a current carrying wire moving
through a magnetic field will experience a magnetic force Fm
= ILB^ =
v(LB^)2/R.
Using the right hand rule, the force
is directed up the incline.
We are told that the velocity of the rod is constant
so a = 0. Let's draw the free body diagram and apply Newton's
Second Law.

We get
| ΣFx | = max | ΣFy | = may | |
| -Fm + mgcos(θ) | = 0 | N - mgsin(θ) | = 0 |
So we get
Solving for B^, we find
| B^ | = [Rmgsin(θ) / vL2]½ |
| = [(2 Ω)(0.050 kg)(9.81 m/s2)sin(30°) / (5 m/s)(0.40 m)2]½ | |
| = 0.78 T |
If the B were down instead of up, the current would circulate
CCW. The magnetic force would still be up the incline, so the
magnitude of B would remain the same.

(a) The equivalent inductance is given by
The equivalent inductance is Leq = 18.75 H.
(b) With switch S closed initially, the inductors act as opens. The equivalent circuit is

Using Ohm's Law,
(c) After a long time, the inductors act as shorts

Using Ohm's Law,
(d) The equivalent inductor is discharging through R2. According to our formula
| I(t) = I¥(1 - e-t/τ) , | (1) |
where the time constant τ is
We are looking for t such that I(t) =
0.85I¥ = 0.1133 A. Substituting
into equation (1) yields
Solving for t yields
(e) The energy stored in an inductor is given by U = ½LI2. Thus the equivalent inductor stores an energy of
For the inductors that make up the equivalent inductor we need to know how much current flows through each. The diagram below shows the current assignments.

Since the arms are in parallel,
| L1dI1/dt = (L2 + L3)dI23/dt . | (2) |
Using conservation of charge I = I1 + I23,
this becomes
| L1dI1/dt = (L2 + L3)d(I - I1)/dt . | (3) |
On rearrangement, this becomes
| dI1/dt = [(L2 + L3)/ (L1 + L2 + L3)]dI/dt . | (4) |
Since we know the behaviour of I from (1), we integrate (4) and
find
So the energy stored in inductor L1 is
Similarly we find
Thus the energy stored in L2 and L3 is
Questions? mike.coombes@kwantlen.ca