| Questions: | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 | 11 |
Physics 2420: In–Class Problems Law of Biot–Savart

We label the pieces of the wire A, B, and C. The field due to a segment of infinitesimal piece of wire is given by
dB = (μ0/4π)I [dl ´ (r/r3)] , (1)
where r is the vector from the segment to the point of interest. For the radial pieces A and C, dl = dr and thus dl ´ (r/r) = 0. We need only consider the contribution from B.
Next we choose a set of axis and pick an arbitrary piece of segment B. We then must express dl and r in Cartesian coordinates. Here we have dl = i dx and r = –i x – j h. As well, r = | r | = [x2 + h2]½.

Thus equation (1) becomes
dB = (μ0/4π)I [i ´ (–i x – j h)]dx/[x2 + h2]3/2 .
Doing the cross product yields
dB = –k (μ0/4π)Ihdx/[x2 + h2]3/2 .
This tell us that the magnetic field at point P is directed into the page which agrees with what we get from the Right–Hand Rule.
We integrate over the entire length of the segment to get B
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B |
= ò–aL–a dB |
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= –k (μ0/4π)I ò–aL–a h/[h2 + x2]3/2 dx |
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= –k (μ0/4π)I {x / h[h2 + x2]½ |–aL–a} |
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= –k (μ0/4π)(I/h){ (L–a)/ [h2 + (L–a)2]½ + a/[h2 + a2]½} |
Note that in the limit L >> h, this reduces to the familiar result for a field due to a long wire
Bwire = (μ0/4π)(I/h) .

The field due to a segment of infinitesimal piece of wire is given by
dB = (μ0/4π)I [dl ´ (r/r3)] , (1)
where r is the vector from the segment to the point of interest. For the radial pieces in the diagram above, dl = dr and thus dl ´ r = 0. We need only consider the contribution from curved arcs.
The field due to each side curve is the same by symmetry and is directed into the paper at the origin using the right hand rule. The field due to the top and bottom curves is the same by symmetry and is also directed into the paper at the origin using the right hand rule.
In general we have arc segments to deal with. Symmetry suggests that we deal with the integrals involving circles and arcs in polar coordinates. Consider a current carrying arc such as is shown below where we have considered an arbitrary portion of the arc. We will end up integrating over θ from –α to +α . First however, we must express dl and r in Cartesian coordinates. This is a little trickier to do here than in the previous question so let’s move dl and r to the origin and do a little geometry and trigonometry. Remember vectors can be moved around as long as we do not change length or orientation.

Recall that the magnitude of dl is dl = | dl | = Rdθ . Thus dl = Rdθ [ i cos(θ) – j sin(θ) ]. As well, r = R [–i sin(θ) – j cos(θ)] since r = | r | = R. Thus equation (1) becomes
dB = (μ0/4π)(I/R3){ Rdθ [ i cos(θ) – j sin(θ) ] ´ R [–i sin(θ) – j cos(θ)] } .
Working out the cross product yields
dB = –k (μ0/4π)(I/R)dθ [cos2(θ) + sin2(θ)] = –k (μ0/4π)(I/R)dθ .
So the magnetic field at the origin of the arc is directed into the page which is what we already found from the Right–Hand Rule.
Next, we integrate over the entire angular extent of the segment to get B
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B |
= ò–αα dB |
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= –k (μ0/4π)(I/R) ò–α αdθ |
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= –k (μ0/4π)(I/R) {θ |–α α} |
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= –k (μ0/2π)(Iα/R) |
For the top and bottom coils, R = b, and α = 2π/3. For the side coils R = a and α = π/3. Thus the total field is
B = –k 2(μ0I/2π){(2π/3b) + (π/3a)} = –k (μ0I/3)(2/b + 1/a) .
Note that in the limit a = b, this reduces to the familiar result for a field due to a circular wire
B = μ0I/π a .

The field due to a segment of infinitesimal piece of wire is given by
dB = (μ0/4π)I [dl ´ (r/r3)] , (1)
where r is the vector from the segment to the point of interest. For the radial pieces in the diagram above, dl = dr and thus dl ´ r = 0. We need only consider the contribution from curved arcs.
The field due to the large arc out of the paper at the point P using the right hand rule. The field due to the small arc is directed into the paper at the P. From question 3, we found that the field due to an arc was
B = (μ0I/2π) (α/r) .
For both arcs, α = π/2. For the top arc r = 2R, and for the bottom r = R. Taking out of the page as positive
B = (μ0I/4)(1/2R – 1/R) = –μ0I/8R .
The net field is into the paper.

The field due to a segment of infinitesimal piece of wire is given by
dB = (μ0/4π)I [dl ´ r] / r3 , (1)
where r is the vector from the segment to the point of interest. Putting the origin at the centre of the radius of curvature and picking an arbitrary piece or the wire dl, we find S = i Rcos(φ) + j Rsin(φ) and P = i a. Therefore r = P – S = i [a – Rcos(φ)] – j Rsin(φ). The magnitude of this vector is r = [a2 – 2aRcos(φ) + R2]½. Note that dl = –φ Rdφ , since the current moves in the clockwise or negative direction. To do the cross product, we need to express dl in ijk notation. Placing dl at the origin as shown in the next diagram, doing some geometry, and determining the components of dl, we see that dl = Rdφ [ i sin(φ) – j cos(φ)].

Thus equation (1) for this problem is
dB = (μ0/4π)I Rdφ [i sin(φ)–j cos(φ)]´ [i [a–Rcos(φ)]–j Rsin(φ)]/[a2–2aRcos(φ)+R2]3/2 .
Doing the cross product yields

And we have
dB = k (μ0/4π)IRdφ [acos(φ) – R]/[ a2–2aRcos(φ)+R2]3/2 .
This tells us that the magnetic field at point P is directed out of the page which agrees with what we get from the Right–Hand Rule.
We integrate over the entire length of the segment from 0 to π/2 to get B
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B |
= ò0½π dB |
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= –k (μ0IR/4π) ò0½π dφ [acos(φ) – R]/[ a2–2aRcos(φ)+R2]3/2 |

The field due to a surface current is given by
B = (μ0/4π) òsurface dS [K ´ r] / r3 , (1)
where r is the vector from the segment of the surface current to the point of interest. Using the given origin and picking an arbitrary piece of the wire dS, we find S = j y + k z and P = i b. Therefore r = P – S = i b – j y – k z. The magnitude of this vector is r = [b2 + y2 + z2]½. The surface element is dS = dydz where -½W £ y £ ½W and 0 £ z £ L. Thus equation (1) for this problem is
B = (μ0/4π) ò½W½W dy ò0L dz {kCz ´ [i b – j y – k z]} / [b2 + y2 + z2]3/2
Doing the cross product yields

And we have
B = (μ0/4π)C ò½W½W dy ò0L dz {i zy + j zb} / [b2 + y2 + z2]3/2 .
Using MAPLE to integrate the components of the magnetic field, we find Bx = 0 and


The field due to a surface current is given by
B = (μ0/4π) òsurface dS [K ´ r] / r3 , (1)
where r is the vector from the segment of the surface current to the point of interest. The object has planar circular (polar coordinate) symmetry, so the variables of integration should be s and φ with the area element being dS = sdsdφ where R £ s £ R+a and 0 £ φ £ π . All directions should be given in standard ijk notation for convenience in dealing with the cross product. We know that φ = –i sin(φ) + j cos(φ). The origin is at the centre of curvature. Picking an arbitrary piece of the object dS, we find S = i x + j y and P = 0. Therefore r = P – S = – i x – j y. The magnitude of this vector is r = [x2 + y2]½. We need to express x and y in terms of s and φ . We know x = scos(φ) and y = ssin(φ), so r = – i scos(φ) – j ssin(φ) and r = s. Thus equation (1) for this problem is
B = (μ0/4π) òRR+a ds ò0π dφ s {Cs[–i sin(φ) + j cos(φ)] ´ [–i scos(φ) – j ssin(φ)]} / s3
Doing the cross product yields

And we have
B = k (μ0/4π) C òRR+a ds ò0π dφ = k (μ0/4) CR .

The field due to a surface current is given by
B = (μ0/4π) òsurface dS [K ´ r] / r3 , (1)
where r is the vector from the segment of the surface current to the point of interest. The object has planar circular (polar coordinate) symmetry, so the variables of integration should be s and φ with the area element being dS = sdsdφ where 0 £ s £ R and 0 £ φ £ 2π . All directions should be given in standard ijk notation for convenience in dealing with the cross product. We know that φ = –i sin(φ) + j cos(φ). The origin is at the centre of the disk. Picking an arbitrary piece of the disk dS, we find S = i x + j y and P = k b. Therefore r = P – S = – i x – j y + k b. The magnitude of this vector is r = [x2 + y2 + b2]½. We need to express x and y in terms of s and φ . We know x = scos(φ) and y = ssin(φ), so r = – i scos(φ) – j ssin(φ) + k b and r = [s2 + b2]½. Thus equation (1) for this problem is
B = (μ0/4π)ò0R ds ò02πdφ s{Σ sΩ[–i sin(φ)+jcos(φ)]´ [–iscos(φ)–jssin(φ)+kb]}/[s2+b2]3/2
Doing the cross product yields

And we have
B = (μ0/4π) Σ Ω ò0R ds ò02π dφ s2 [i bcos(φ) + j bsin(φ) + k s] / [s2 + b2]3/2
The i and j terms vanish upon integration over φ , leaving


The field due to a volume current is given by
B = (μ0/4π) òvolume dV [J ´ g] / g3 , (1)
where g is the vector from the segment of the surface current to the point of interest. The object has spherical symmetry, so the variables of integration should be r, θ , and φ with the volume element being dV = r2sin(θ)drdθ dφ where 0 £ r £ R, 0 £ θ £ π and 0 £ φ £ 2π . All directions should be given in standard ijk notation for convenience in dealing with the cross product. We know that φ = –i sin(φ) + j cos(φ). The origin is at the centre of the sphere. Picking an arbitrary piece of the sphere dV, we find S = i x + j y + k z and P = k b. Therefore g = P – S = – i x – j y + k (b – z). The magnitude of this vector is g = [x2 + y2 + z2 + b2 – 2bz]½. We need to express x, y and z in terms of r, θ , and φ . We know x = rsin(θ)cos(φ), y = rsin(θ)sin(φ), and z = rcos(θ) so r = – i rsin(θ)cos(φ) – j rsin(θ)sin(φ) + k [b – rcos(θ)] and g = [r2 + b2 – 2br cos(θ)]½. Thus equation (1) for this problem is
B = (μ0/4π) ò0R dr ò02π dφ ò0π dθ r2sin(θ) {ρ rsin(θ)Ω [–i sin(φ)+jcos(φ)]´ [– i rsin(θ)cos(φ) – j rsin(θ)sin(φ) + k (b – rcos(θ))]}/[r2 + b2 – 2br cos(θ)]3/2
Doing the cross product yields

And we have

The i and j terms vanish upon integration over φ , leaving
Bz = (μ0/2) ρ Ω ò0R dr ò0π dθ r4 sin3(θ) / [r2 + b2 – 2brcos(θ)]3/2 .
The integrand may be converted to a series by expanding about s = 0. Only the first term gives a non-zero result for the integration over θ . We are left with
Bz = 2μ0 ρ ΩR5 / 15b3 .

The field due to a volume current is given by
B = (μ0/4π) òvolume dV [J ´ r] / r3 , (1)
where r is the vector from the segment of the surface current to the point of interest. The object has cylindrical symmetry, so the variables of integration should be s, φ , and z. All directions should be given in standard ijk notation for convenience in dealing with the cross product. We take the origin is at the bottom of the cylinder and assume that the point of interest is on the y axis. Picking an arbitrary piece of the cylinder dV = sdsdφ dz, we find S = i x + j y + k z and P = j b. Therefore r = P – S = – i x + j (b – y) – k z. The magnitude of this vector is r = [x2 + y2 + z2 + b2 – 2by]½. We need to express x, y and z in terms of s, φ , and z. We know x = scos(φ), y = ssin(φ), and z = z so r = – i scos(φ) + j [b – ssin(φ)] – k z and r = [z2 + s2 + b2 – 2bs sin(φ)]½. Thus equation (1) for this problem is

The cross product yields

Thus our equation becomes

The j term vanishes leaving

The integral over z yields

The integrand may be converted to a series by expanding about s = 0. Only the first term gives a non-zero result for the integration over φ . We are left with
Bz = – μ0CR3/6b .
Noting that the current in this case I = ò0R dr ò02π dφ sJ = 2π CR3/3 , the above answer reduces to Bz = – μ0I / 4π b. The same result as a long thin wire.
Real magnetic fields have zero divergence, Ñ·B = 0
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(a) |
Ñ ·B |
= ¶ Bx/¶ x + ¶ By/¶ y + ¶ Bz/¶ z |
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= ¶ (2xy)/¶ x + ¶ (2z + 3)/¶ y + ¶ (5 – 2yz)/¶ z |
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= 2y + 0 – 2y |
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= 0 |
So this may be a magnetic field.
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(b) |
Ñ ·B |
= ¶ Bx/¶ x + ¶ By/¶ y + ¶ Bz/¶ z |
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= ¶ (x2 + y2)/¶ x + ¶ (3)/¶ y + ¶ (–xz)/¶ z |
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= 2x + 0 – x |
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= x |
So this cannot be a magnetic field.
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(c) |
Ñ ·B |
= ¶ Bx/¶ x + ¶ By/¶ y + ¶ Bz/¶ z |
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= ¶ (y3 – z3)/¶ x + ¶ (z3 – x3)/¶ y + ¶ (x3 – y3)/¶ z |
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= 0 + 0 + 0 |
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= 0 |
So this may be a magnetic field.
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(d) |
Ñ ·B |
= ¶ Bx/¶ x + ¶ By/¶ y + ¶ Bz/¶ z |
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= ¶ ln(x)/¶ x + ¶ (y/x)/¶ y + ¶ (–2y/x)/¶ z |
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= 1/x + 1/x + 0 |
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= 2/x |
So this cannot be a magnetic field.

where m = Iπ a2 is the dipole moment of the loop.



Examining Figure 2, we immediately see that
A = asin(β ) i + 0 j + acos(β ) k .
By geometry, we see that dl is angle β below the positive x axis. As well, the length of the arc is dl = | dl | = a dβ . Hence
dl = adβ cos(β ) i + 0 j - adβ sin(β ) k .
We are told P is in the yz plane so
P = 0 i + Rcos(α) j + Rsin(α) k .
Vector r is the vector from A to P, so
r = P - A = -asin(β ) i + Rcos(α) j + [Rsin(α) - acos(β )] k .
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dl ´ r |
= adβ {cos(β ) i + 0 j - sin(β ) k} ´ {-asin(β ) i + Rcos(α) j + [Rsin(α)-acos(β )] k} |
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= adβ { Rcos(α)sin(β ) i + [a- Rsin(α)cos(β )] j + Rcos(α)cos(β ) k } |
dB = (μ0/4π)(I/r3) dl ´ r .
We first need to find r = | r |,

Then we observe that we need to integrate around the entire circumference of the loop from β = 0 to β = 2π . So the field is

Expanding the integral’s denominator, we have

We neglect terms of order (a/R)2 and higher. Thus the x and y components of the magnetic field are

and

where we have used MAPLE to evaluate the integrals.
Br = Bycos(α) + Bzsin(α) .
After using some trigonometric identities, we find
Br = 2μ0mcos(α)/4πR2 .
Similarly, the magnetic field along the θ axis is
Bθ = -Bysin(α) + Bzcos(α) ,
which reduces to
Bθ = μ0msin(α)/4π R2 .
The Bφ term is zero since it is at right angles to Br and Bθ which in turn makes it perpendicular to the By and Bz terms.
Questions?mike.coombes@kwantlen.ca